So here we have a Medscape article, telling us that the world’s first coronavirus RE-infection has been reported.
But … is it REALLY a reinfection? It doesn’t seem to be, not by their wording.
Remember, terminology matters. ACCURACY matters.
And remember the difference between SARS-CoV-2 (the virus) and COVID-19 (the complication that SOME people get when they’re infected by the virus)
The man in this article was cleared of CoVID-19.
He then contracted A DIFFERENT STRAIN OF CORONAVIRUS.
He “remained asymptomatic for the second infection.”
So why did they even test him? And if it’s a different strain of “coronavirus,” NOT SARS-CoV-2, and he’s ASYMPTOMATIC, why on earth is it newsworthy?
Coronavirus has been around for at least 50 years, and several strains can cause symptoms that get labeled “the common cold,” like coronavirus types NL63, HKU1, 229E, and OC43. There is a 2012 study which actually found that flu shots may increase your chances of coming down with THOSE types of coronavirus. (NOT SARS-CoV-2 — that we know of. So far. Because nobody has studied that possibility. Yet.) For that study, see PSA Part 3.
https://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/936216?src=soc_fb_200824_mscpedt_news_mdscp_reinfection&faf=1